100% Pass Quiz 2025 PRMIA Pass-Sure 8020: ORM Certificate - 2023 Update Exam Syllabus
100% Pass Quiz 2025 PRMIA Pass-Sure 8020: ORM Certificate - 2023 Update Exam Syllabus
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PRMIA 8020 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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PRMIA ORM Certificate - 2023 Update Sample Questions (Q50-Q55):
NEW QUESTION # 50
Risk Capacity for a bank is defined as the:
- A. Ability to withstand an extreme event and make a profit.
- B. Amount of risk the bank wishes to take.
- C. Amount of risk the regulator sets for the bank.
- D. Ability to suffer an extreme event with an orderly wind up with only shareholders losing money.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Step 1: Definition of Risk Capacity
Risk Capacity refers to the maximum level of risk a bank can absorb while still maintaining orderly operations or, in extreme cases, conducting an orderly resolution.
PRMIA and Basel III define risk capacity as a bank's ability to absorb losses in a crisis without systemic consequences.
Step 2: Why Option D Is Correct
The ultimate test of a bank's risk capacity is whether it can survive an extreme shock without harming depositors or financial markets.
Regulators ensure that a bank can be wound up in an orderly manner so that only shareholders lose money, while depositors and creditors remain protected under resolution planning frameworks.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Amount of risk the bank wishes to take")
Incorrect because this describes Risk Appetite, not Risk Capacity.
Option B ("Amount of risk the regulator sets for the bank")
Incorrect because regulators set capital requirements, but the bank's actual risk capacity is based on its own capital structure and business model.
Option C ("Ability to withstand an extreme event and make a profit")
Incorrect because risk capacity is about survival, not profit-making during extreme events.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
Basel III Risk Capacity Standards - Defines the ability to absorb losses during crises.
PRMIA Risk Governance Framework - Describes how banks should manage risk capacity through capital buffers.
Final Conclusion:
Banks must be able to withstand an extreme event and conduct an orderly wind-up if necessary, ensuring that only shareholders bear the loss, making Option D the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 51
When a single operational risk event leads to losses in multiple business lines or impacts across several event types, how should these linked losses be treated?
- A. Each business line should take it's own discretion as to how the losses are treated.
- B. Pro-rate the loss across the affected business line.
- C. Either allocate entire loss to the business line for which the loss is greatest or pro-rate the loss across the affected business line.
- D. Allocate entire loss to the business line for which the loss is greatest.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Step 1: Understanding Linked Losses in Operational Risk
In operational risk events, a single event can impact multiple business lines or event types (e.g., IT failure affecting retail banking and wealth management).
Proper loss attribution is important for accurate risk reporting and regulatory compliance under Basel III.
Step 2: Why Option C is Correct
Basel III and PRMIA guidance allow institutions flexibility in how to allocate linked losses:
Entire loss can be allocated to the business line with the largest loss impact for simplified reporting.
Loss can be pro-rated across affected business lines for more accurate attribution.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Allocate entire loss to the business line with the greatest loss") → Partially correct, but not always required-some firms prefer pro-rating.
Option B ("Pro-rate the loss") → Partially correct, but allocating to the largest impacted business line is also acceptable.
Option D ("Each business line decides how to treat losses") → Incorrect because loss allocation should follow a defined policy, not business line discretion.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
Basel III Operational Risk Framework - Discusses loss attribution for multi-line impact events.
PRMIA Loss Event Management Guidelines - Supports both full allocation and pro-rating.
Final Conclusion:
Firms can either allocate the full loss to the most impacted business line or pro-rate it across affected lines, making Option C the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Risk and compliance functions often work together; which of the following best desribes the issue with a "zero risk appetite"?
- A. It means that there can be a risk self assessment workshop for the compliance department.
- B. An organization may decide that it will accept a certain level of outstanding compliance issues and thus will breach such an appetite statement.
- C. It will result in a compliance investigation conducted by the first line.
- D. A zero risk appetite is illegal under all known regulations.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding Zero Risk Appetite in Compliance
A zero risk appetite means the organization does not tolerate any compliance breaches.
However, in real-world risk management, it is often impractical to have zero risk exposure.
Some compliance violations may occur despite strong controls, making a strict zero-risk stance unrealistic.
Why Answer C is Correct
If an organization adopts a zero risk appetite for compliance, any compliance issue, even minor ones, would breach this policy.
This contradicts practical risk management, which allows for some residual risk while maintaining controls.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . A zero risk appetite is illegal under all known regulations.
Incorrect - It is not illegal, but it is impractical in many industries.
B . It means that there can be a risk self-assessment workshop for the compliance department.
Incorrect - Self-assessments are part of compliance but do not define zero risk appetite issues.
D . It will result in a compliance investigation conducted by the first line.
Incorrect - Investigations are typically conducted by the second or third line of defense (compliance or audit), not the first line.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Risk Appetite Guidelines
Basel & ISO 31000 Risk Management Frameworks
NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the below is a definition of climate risk?
- A. Climate risk refers to the growing impacts of credit risk on the business environment.
- B. Climate risk has been moved out of all risk taxonomies due to international agreement.
- C. Climate risk refers to change in the business climate during a recession.
- D. Climate risk refers to the growing impacts that businesses and our overall society may face due to climate change.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Step 1: Definition of Climate Risk
PRMIA and global financial regulators define climate risk as the financial, operational, and societal risks arising from climate change.
Climate risks impact businesses through physical risks (e.g., floods, wildfires) and transition risks (e.g., regulatory changes, carbon pricing).
Step 2: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Climate risk has been moved out of all risk taxonomies due to international agreement") Incorrect because climate risk is now a central part of risk taxonomies, as emphasized by PRMIA, Basel III, and TCFD.
Option B ("Climate risk refers to the growing impacts of credit risk on the business environment") Incorrect because credit risk is just one aspect of climate risk, not the full definition.
Option C ("Climate risk refers to change in the business climate during a recession") Incorrect because climate risk is about environmental change, not economic cycles.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Climate Risk Guidelines - Defines climate risk as a financial and societal risk due to climate change.
TCFD (Task Force on Climate-Related Financial Disclosures) - Outlines regulatory expectations for climate risk management.
Final Conclusion:
Climate risk involves physical and transition risks from climate change, making Option D the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 54
Managing financial crime is a part of risk and compliance for many firms. Which of the following is a useful control to help reduce this risk?
- A. Local regulations that allow a bank to not report transactions by family members of the board.
- B. Having the business be a cash only business and not report any transactions.
- C. The requirements to trace all transactions when they are entered into spreadsheets.
- D. Development of scenarios and red flags that are used to monitor transactions and identify suspicious customers and activities.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Financial Crime Risk Management
Managing financial crime requires implementing controls, monitoring, and reporting systems to detect and prevent illegal activities.
Developing red flags and monitoring scenarios allows firms to detect suspicious transactions related to money laundering, fraud, and terrorist financing.
Why Answer C is Correct
PRMIA emphasizes that effective risk management requires proactive monitoring of transactions using red flags, transaction patterns, and anomaly detection systems.
This is aligned with Anti-Money Laundering (AML) and Counter-Terrorism Financing (CTF) regulatory requirements.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Having the business be a cash-only business and not report any transactions.
Incorrect - Cash-only businesses with no reporting are high-risk for financial crime.
B . The requirements to trace all transactions when they are entered into spreadsheets.
Incorrect - While transaction tracing is important, spreadsheets alone are not an effective control mechanism for financial crime.
D . Local regulations that allow a bank to not report transactions by family members of the board.
Incorrect - This would violate AML and financial crime regulations, increasing corruption risk.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Financial Crime and AML Risk Guidelines
Basel Committee on Financial Crime and Money Laundering
NEW QUESTION # 55
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